Ga*ked from [livejournal.com profile] jilflirt

Nov. 4th, 2006 11:48 pm
darcydodo: (white horse)
[personal profile] darcydodo
Sounds about right. ;) Though if I'd gotten one more question right (and there were a couple I was dithering on), it would have dubbed me English. So [livejournal.com profile] tigupine can go be happy now, or something.

You are 79% English.

You are either native and stupid, or you are foreign and knowledgeable.

"And did those feet
In ancient times,
Walk upon England's mountains green?
And was the holy Lamb of God
In England's pleasant pastures seen?"

Well, no, but it's a cracking good tune.

How English are you?
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Date: 2006-11-05 06:06 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] once-a-banana.livejournal.com
So odd. I even saw a travel show on KQED where, though they indeed refer to Big Ben as being the biggest bell in the clock, they also have tea with an extremely refined and highly British lady, who insists on instructing them that the tea goes first. So it sounds like it's something British people don't even agree about! Anyway what are the historical reasons? I never knew there was supposed to be a proper order. I always have put tea first on the assumption that I should use the hottest possible liquid to dissolve the sugar properly, and only then add milk afterwards. Of course, technically I am usually putting in the water first (with tea-bag), so I'm obviously a philistine anyway.

Date: 2006-11-05 06:58 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] earthtomeryl.livejournal.com
According to my gran, it goes like this:
Tea, as it was originally drunk by ladies after being discovered in the exotic colonies, was a very delicately flavored beverage and was never drunk with milk. Or sugar. Perhaps a little lemon.
As the lower classes adopted it, they preferred it strong and milky.
Therefore, a lady should only add the milk as an afterthought.
(oh yes, I am not kidding, and she was at least 3/4 serious...)

Date: 2006-11-05 07:12 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] earthtomeryl.livejournal.com
After thinking about this explanation, it seems like maybe Chinese tea was adopted first, and Indian tea came back with the plebians who went to help control India. Anyone know?

(to clarify, I am not this classist. I'm trying to make fun of British classism)

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